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« Technical Recession on Lollypop Lane | Main | The Regressive Season »

March 28, 2012

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Seanán Kerr

I'm curious as to how the above squares with this http://karlwhelan.com/blog/?p=170 the section under the image capture in the report states

"The austerity measures included here are limited to those that have a direct effect on household disposable income (changes to direct taxes, cash benefits and public sector pay). They do not include changes to employer or credited contributions. In addition, increases in indirect tax, cuts in public services and some minor tax-benefit changes (see text) are not included. Deciles are based on equivalised disposable income in the counterfactual (before austerity) scenario and constructed using the modified OECD equivalence scale to adjust incomes for household size."

Is that in and of itself enough to account for the difference in income, where one report shows the wealthy have suffered the least and the other shows it is the poor who have suffered the least?

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